1) An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilization factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be______?
a) 1 aircraft per hour
b) 2 aircrafts per hour
c) 4 aircrafts per hour
d) 16 aircrafts per hour
2) The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require______?
a) Only clearway
b) Only stop way
c) Either a clearway or a stopway
d) Either a clearway or a stopway or both
3) If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest mouth of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 45o C, the airport reference temperature is_______?
4) As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of _____?
a) 0.1 %
b) 0.2 %
c) 0.3 %
d) 0.4 %
5) As per international civil aviation organization (ICAO) recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrument runway should be____?
a) 78 m
b) 100 m
c) 300 m
d) 450 m
6) The minimum width of clearway is____?
a)) 50 m
b) 100 m
c) 150 m
d) 250 m
7) The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m, and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be____?
8) The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon___?
a) Weather condition and navigational aids available
b) Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
c) Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
d) Lateral spacing between two runways, weather condition aids available
9) As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are_____?
a) 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
b) 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
c) 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
d) 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
10) The length of runway under standard conditions is 200 m. the elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05oC. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be______?
a) 2500 m
b) 2600 m
c) 2700 m
d) 2800 m
11) Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is____?
a) Equal to empty operating weight
b) Equal to maximum landing weight
c) Less than empty operating weight
d) Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay lord
12) As per ICAO, for airport serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed_____?
a) 15 kmph
b) 25 kmph
c) 35 kmph
d) 45 kmph
13) For determining the basic runway. Length, the landing case requires that aircrafts should come to a stop within p% of the landing distance. The value of p is____?
14) Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of______?
a) 3 m from runway end
b) 6 m from runway end
c) 10 m from runway end
d) 15 m from runway end
15) In instrumental landing system, the middle markers are located_____?
a) Along the extended centre line of runway end
b) About 1km. ahead of the runway threshold
c) At the runway threshold
d) About 7km ahead of the runway threshold
16) The centre of centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area should be___?
a) 2.5 m
b) 5.0 m
c) 7.5 m
d) 10.0 m
17) Assertion A: the width of taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway.?
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
18) As per UK design criteria if the LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN movements allowed are_____?
19) The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be____?
20) In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than_____?
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 45 m
d) 51 m