1) The main disadvantage of angles nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the_____?
a) Aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building
b) Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building
c) Overall apron area required is more
d) All the above
2) Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient
Select the correct answer using the codes given below codes?
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1,3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 4
3) The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be_____?
a) 2845 m
b) 2910 m
c) 3030 m
d) 3130 m
4) In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be_____?
5) Consider the following statements: wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of_____?
1. Runway orientation
2. Estimating the runway capacity
3. Geometric design of holding apron
Select the correct answer?
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1 alone is correct
6) Castor angle is defined as the angle____?
a) Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the director of movement of the nose gear
b) Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
c) Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
d) Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
7) Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft is____?
a) Equal to the maximum structural landing weight
b) Less than the maximum structural landing weight
c) More than the maximum structural landing weight
d) Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
8) Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft?
c) Terminal building
d) Holding apron
9) Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?
a) Alligator cracking
b) Mud pumping
c) Warping cracks
d) Shrinkage craks
10) For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is_____?
a) 60 m
b) 120 m
c) 180 m
d) 240 m
11) Assertion A: Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions. Reason R: during clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions?
Select your answer based on the coding system given below?
a)) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
12) The size of landing area for multiengine helicopters operating under 1FR conditions is_____?
a) 22.5 m * 22.5 m
b) 30 m * 30 m
c) 22.5 m * 30 m
d) 60 m * 120 m
13) The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of heliport should be_____?
14) The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are____?
a) 3 m and 30 m
b) 4.2 m and 30 m
c) 4.2 m and 50 m
d) 3 m and 45 m
15) According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are___?
16) Clam period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than______?
a)) 4.8 kmph
b) 6.4 kmph
c) 8.0 kmph
d) 9.6 kmph
17) The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be_____?
a) 450 kmph and 500 kmph
b) 500 kmph and 450 kmph
c) 450 kmph and 450 kmph
d) 500 kmph and 450 kmph
18) As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be____?
a) 1500 m and 600 m
b) 2100 m and 750 m
c) 1500 m and 750 m
d) 2100 m and 600 m
19) The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of small aircraft is___?
a) 150 m
b) 300 m
c) 600 m
d) 750 m